Law – Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission TNPSC 2026-27 – Previous Year questions papers with Answer Key Solutions – For all Group Exam Preparation
1.A person who lends his articles or goods without any charge is called?
Ans: Gratuitous bailor
2.Section 14-A of the specific Relief Act, 1963 speaks about?
Ans: Power of court to engage experts
3.The Specific Relief Act-1963 is based on ___________ report of the law commission of India.
Ans: 9th report
4.Special courts are dealt under ___________ of Specific Relief Act?
AnS: Section 20 B
5.Mortgage is defined under Section —————— provision of ‘‘Transfer of Property Act’’, 1882?
Ans: Section 58
6.Under Section 6(c) of Transfer of Property Act, an easement right cannot be transferred apart from ———————
Ans: Dominant heritage
7.The object of doctrine of Marshalling is to?
Ans: Protect the subsequent Mortgagee
8.Any advantages to the mortgage beyond the interest on the amount advanced as a loan is called as ?
Ans: Collateral advantage
9.Lord Davey explained the doctrine of equity of redemption as ‘‘Once a Mortgage always a Mortgage’’ in
Ans: Noakes & Co. Vs Rice (1902) EC 24
10.Which provision of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, describe the appointment of receiver?
Ans: Section 69–A
11.Besides the mortgagor, which of the following person may institute a suit for redemption of the mortgaged property?
Ans: any surety for the payment of the mortgage-debt
12.Once a mortgage always a mortgage – means?
Ans: The mortgagor’s right to redeem the mortgage
13.Legal subrogation arises?
Ans: By Operation of Law
14.A mortgage corresponds to the Hypotheca of
Ans: Roman Law
15.Section 9 of S.R. Act 1963, deals with?
Ans: Defences
16.A tender to supply goods as and when required amounts to a
Ans: Standing offer
17.The term ‘Bailment’ means a delivery of a thing entrusted for
Ans: specific purpose upon a contract
18.In —————— case, A promissory note, executed in favour of a minor is valid and can be enforced the decided by the court of law
Ans: Sharafat Ali (vs) Noor Mohammed
19.‘A’ agrees to sell ‘B’ 100 bags of wheat of Rs. 1650/- per bag. Before delivery, the government bans private trading in wheat. The contract becomes Void due to ___________ under ___________ of Indian Contract Act – 1872.
Ans: Subsequent illegality – Section-56
20.Section 65 of the TP Act 1882, speaks about
Ans: Implied contracts by mortgager
21.The doctrine of ‘holding out’ is provided in section ___________ of I.P.A. 1832.
Ans: Section 28 of Ind.Part.Act. 1832
22.Among the following the writ of ___________ is described as a ‘‘great constitutional privilege’’. ?
Ans: Writ of Habeas Corpus
23.‘‘Delegatus non potest delegare’’ means ?
Ans: A delegate cannot further delegate
24.___________ remarks that ‘‘It is logically impossible to distinguish administrative law from constitutional law and all attempts to do so are artificial’’
Ans: Keith
25.In which of the following country constituted ‘Franks Committee’ to investigate elaborately into the working of various tribunals and quasi-judicial bodies?
Ans: Britain
26.Droit Administratif is the name given to the Administrative Law prevailing in
Ans: France
27.___________ says, ‘‘every power tend to corrupt and absolute power tend to corrupt absolutely’’
Ans: Lord Acton
28.Form of warrant of arrest dealt under section ___________BNSS-2023
Ans: Section 72 of BNSS
29.If the proclaimed person appeal within the time specified in the proclamation, the court shall make an order relating to property is
Ans: Releasing from the attachment
30.The concept of – ‘‘Natural Justice’’ is closely associated with?
Ans: Doctrine of Ultra Vires
31.Article 227 of the Indian Constitution grants High court supervisory power overall court and tribunals, but this power does not extend to
Ans: Military Tribunal
32.In which case, the Supreme Court held that a ‘‘fair hearing’’ has two justiciable elements – (i) an opportunity of hearing must be afforded and (ii) such opportunity must be reasonable one?
Ans: Indru Ramchand Bharvani v. Union of India (1988) 4 SCC
33.In St. John’s Teacher Training Institute Case, the Supreme Court emphasized the need for?
Ans: Delegated legislation
34.‘‘The rules of natural justice would apply even an administrative order or decision’’, held in
Ans: State of Orissa v. Dr. Binapani Dei
35.Offences not punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term not exceeding ___________ may by summarily.
Ans: 2 years
36.In BNSS, 2023 who has the power to try summarily the criminal cases?
Ans: Magistrate I class
37.According to section 251(1) of the BNSS, if the offence is exclusively triable by the court of session, within how many days must the judge frame a charge against the accused?
Ans: 60 days
38.Under Section 201(1) of BNSS, an offence of dacoity may be tried by a court at ___________.
Ans: where the offence was committed or the accused is found
39.In which case the supreme court held that ‘‘to claim backwages for the non-employment period the employee has to plead and prove that he was not gainfully employed’’
Ans: UP State Brassware corporation Ltd. and others V. Udai Narain Pandey
40.Any employer, workman, trade union or the prescribed representatives of the workmen aggrieved by the order of the certifying officer, ___________ days from the date on which copies of the draft standing orders are sent, appeal to the appellate authority.
Ans: within 30 days
41.Which one is related to the case of Victoria Mills Co. Ltd. Vs Presiding Officer Labour Court (AIR 1970)
Ans: Misconduct of an employee
42.In the Bangalore Water Supply and Sewage Board v. R. Rajappa and others case held by Supreme Court in the definition of the term Industry. The number of Judges in this landmark judgement held.
Ans: Seven Judges
43.Under the Industrial Disputes Act, the inability of an employer on account of shortage of raw materials to give employment to a workmen, whose name appears on the muster-rolls of his Industrial establishment and who has not been retrenched is considered as
Ans: Lay off
44.Any person who has attained the minimum age of ___________ years may become eligible to be a member of a registered trade union, subject to any rules of the trade union to the contrary.
Ans: 15
45.According to Trade Union Act, 1926 atleast ___________ percent of the votes are recorded in favour of the proposal of amalgamation.
Ans: 60%
46.A person shall not be guilty of contempt of court for ___________.
Ans: Fair criticism of Judicial
47.The Criminal Procedure Code 1973 has come into force on —————
Ans: 1st April, 1974
48.Under which provision of contempt of courts Act, 1971 deal with power of Supreme Court and High Courts to make rule under this Act 1971?
Ans: 23
49.The contempt of Courts Act, came into force on ___________.
Ans: 24th December 1971
50.An appeal for contempt of court can be filed before the Supreme Court, ___________ from the date of the order received.
Ans: within 60 days
51.A decree can be executed by the attachment of immovable property under ___________ of the following one.
Ans: Order 21, Rule 54
52.In CPC, power of court to record admission under order XII was introduced through which amendment?
Ans: 1956
53.Which Article of the Indian constitution provides for transfer of certain cases to a High court?
Ans: Article 228
54.Which one of the following provision discuss about the change of name?
Ans: Section 23 of Trade Union Act 1926
55.Which of the following is provided under the third schedule of the Factories Act 1948?
Ans: List of notifiable diseases
56.Where temporary disablement results from the injury a half-monthly payment of the sum equivalent to ___________% of monthly wages of the employee to be paid.
Ans: 25%
57.The famous English Case Simpson Vs. Sinclair Case (1917) AC 127 related to ___________.
Ans: accident arising in the course of employment
58.Which of the following is an occupational disease as per the ESI Act?
Ans: Bagassosis
59.Rights in re propria means?
Ans: Right over one’s own property
60.The Maxim ‘‘Ignorantia juris non excusat’’ means?
Ans: Ignorance of law is not excuse
61.The liberty and right are synonymous stated by
Ans: Austin
62.If the false fitness certificate was used under the Motor Transport Workers Act 1961. The penalty is ___________.
Ans: Upto one month imprisonment
63.“The Government Transport Service Department was a motor transport undertaking within the meaning of section 2(g) of the Motor Transport Workers Act, 1961” is decided in ___________ case.
Ans: Government Transport Service Vs S.L. Mishra
64.In ___________ case it was decided that the Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act 1952 is applicable for home workers engaged through contractors.
Ans: Mangalore Gandhi Beedi works Vs Union of India
65.According to section 7-D of the EPF appellate tribunal shall consist of ___________ person.
Ans: One
66.The landmark case of B. Shah Vs Labour Court, Coimbatore related to __________
Ans: Maternity benefits
67.Sec 6 A of Employees Provident funds Act, 1952 deals with
Ans: Employee’s Pension Scheme
68.‘‘There can be no right without a corresponding duty’’ was clearly articulated by?
Ans: Salmond
69.In which of the following Right of general lien cannot be exercised by the banker against the customer?
Ans: Safe custody deposit
70.Admission is defined under section ___________ of B.S.A, 2023.
Ans: Section 15
71.The principle of ‘res gestae’ is related to ___________ section of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans: 6
72.Section 8 of the Evidence Act does not deal with
Ans: alibi
73.Section 63 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with ––––––––––?
Ans: secondary evidence
74.One of the following jurist stated ‘‘Custom is to society what law is to the state’’
Ans: Salmond
75.In which one of the following case even the obiter dicta of the Supreme Court is binding upon the subordinate courts?
Ans: Vasudeo -v- State of Maharashtra
76.‘A’ found a bundle of bank notes on the floor of ‘B’s shop. The party who lost them could not be found-decide – ‘A’ and ‘B’s liability
Ans: ‘A’ has lawful possession
77.___________ said that Jurisprudence is the systematic arrangement of the rules followed by the courts.
Ans: Gray
78.The book namely “Law and Morals (1926) written by?
Ans: Roscoe Pound
79.Any regulations or rules contained in the Articles of Association of a company is ___________ when it is repugnant to the provisions of Companies Act.
Ans: Void
80.___________ contains the fundamental conditions upon which alone the company has been incorporated
Ans: Memorandum of Association
81.The Doctrine of ___________ allows all those who deal with the company to assume that the provisions of the articles have been observed by the officers of the company.
Ans: Indoor Management
82.The term ‘‘company’’ is normally reserved for ___________ purpose?
Ans: Economic
83.As per Section 165 of the Companies Act, 2013 a person cannot hold office at the same time as a director in more than ___________ companies.
Ans: 20
84.The principle of rule by majority applicable to the management of the affairs of the company was laid in the leading case of
Ans: Foss V. Harbottle
85.A company may appoint maximum ___________ Number Directors
Ans: 15 Directors
86.The Central Government will provide required approvals to the companies for normal winding up process, this was enforced by?
Ans: The Companies (Winding-up) Rules, 2020
87.Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARC) are required to invest in their security receipts atleast upto
Ans: 5%
88.Doctrine of lifting the corporate veil can be applied under which of the following statutory provisions
Ans: S. 76
89.‘A living person has a mind which can have knowledge or intention and he has hands to carry out his intention. A corporation has none of these, it must act through living persons’’. This statement was said by ___________.
Ans: Lord Reid
90.Which of the following committee is having power to examine the statement of affairs, recovery of property, taking over assets, sale of assets, review of audit reports and payment of dividends
Ans: Winding up Committee
91.The insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 came into effect on?
Ans: 28th May 2016
92.The security creditor may require the borrower to discharge the liability within ___________ days from the date of notice under Section 13 of SARFAESI Act.
Ans: 60
93.Identify entity is/are excluded from the laws relating to winding up of companies or corporations?
Ans: State Financial Corporations
94.A State Financial Corporations is prohibited from subscribing directly the company’s ___________.
Ans: Shares or stocks
95.The period of imprisonment for offence under Section 138 of Negotiable Instrument Act may be upto
Ans: Two years
96.Negotiable Instruments Act was enacted in the year
Ans: 1881
97.Which of the following is not an essential requirement for promissory note?
Ans: Promise must be conditional
98.The word ‘banking’ has been defined in Banking Regulation Act under which Section?
Ans: Section 5(b)
99.Reserve Bank of India was established in the year 1935 based upon the recommendations of ___________.
Ans: Hilton Young Commission
100.According to Section 59 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the right of appropriation is vested with the ___________ who makes a payment.
Ans: Debtor
101.A person aggrieved by any order passed by the central authority under sections 20 and 21 of the Consumer Protection Act – 2019 may file an appeal to the National Commission within a period of ___________ days.
Ans: 30 days
102.As per the Section (5) of the Consumer Protection Act 2019 the complainant means in case of a consumer being a minor
Ans: his Parents (or) legal guardian
103.Restitution of conjugal rights dealt under section ___________ of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
Ans: Section 12
104.For the purpose of Section 85, BNS, 2023, Husband or relative of husband of a woman subjecting her to cruelty, cruelty which of the following doesn’t included as “Cruelty”?
Ans: any wilful disobedience by the husband
105.According to the constitution of India, ___________ right cannot be taken away during emergency.
Ans: Right to life and personal liberty
106.The National Human Rights Commission shall inquire suo motto in violation of Human Rights as per the ___________ of the protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
Ans: Section 12 (a)
107.Which of the following is not a valid exemption that are specified under Section 8 of the Right to Information Act,
Ans: information is held by another public authority
108.The UN declaration of the Rights of Indigenous people was adopted by the general assembly on ––––––––––.
Ans: 2007
109.No person shall be eligible for election as President unless he has completed the age of ___________ years.
Ans: 35
110.In which one of the following cases, the question was placed before the Supreme Court that whether it could entertain an appeal under Article – 136 of constitution against an award of an Industrial Tribunal?
Ans: Bharat Bank (Vs) Employees of Bharat Bank
111.Protection and improvement of forests and wild life dealt under ___________ of Indian Constitution
Ans: Article 48-A
112.As per section 134 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, when a person is involved in an accident, he has to report it to the nearest police station within ___________ hours.
Ans: 24 hours
113.As per the section 2(34) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 “The Public Place” does not mean ___________.
Ans: railway track
114.Session 7 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 provide?
Ans: Capacity of a male Hindu to take in-adoption
115.‘A’ – a Naval officer who enters into his Naval ship after his duty hours he committed an offence of?
Ans: House trespass
116.Whoever intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property is known as ––––––––––.
Ans: Theft
117.Under which case, the Supreme Court gave a detailed guidelines at the time of arrest by the arresting authority?
Ans: D.K. Basu V. State of West Bengal
118.The state is not prevented from making any special provision for women and children under ___________?
Ans: Article 15(3)
119.Under which Article of the Indian Constitution Child labour is strictly prohibited?
Ans: Art 24
120.Which one is incorrect in the given statement?
To consider as a factor to decide whether a corporation comes within the definition of “States”.
Ans: Non-Existence of state control
121.“Preamble is a key to open the mind of the makers of the constitution” is held in the case
Ans: Berubari Union Case
122.Which kind of bonus is not suggested by the Supreme Court of India. “The New Maneck Chowk spinning and Weaving Co. Ltd (Vs) The Textile Labour Association, Ahmedabad”.
Ans: War Bonus
123.The maximum bonus payable to any employee in any accounting year shall be subject to a maximum of ___________ percentage of salary or wage of the employee, as per the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965.
Ans: 20 percent
124.How many independent persons are to be appointed in the Central Advisory Board under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
Ans: Maximum 1/3rd of the total number of the members
125.The responsibility of fixing minimum rates wage lies with ––––––––.?
Ans: Appropriate Government
126.Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 the minimum rate of wages payable to employees is fixed under section ___________ of Minimum Wages Act – 1948.
Ans: Section 3
127.Which of the following statements describes about the “Cost of living index number”?
Ans: The index number ascertained and declared by the competent authority by notification in the official gazette
128.According to Minimum Wages Act 1948 Child means
Ans: Who has not completed fourteenth year of age
129.According to Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the appropriate government shall review the minimum rate of wages at every ___________ intervals.
Ans: Five years
130.Every register and record required to be maintained for the purpose of the Payment of Wages Act to be preserved for a period of ___________ years after the date of the last entry made therein
Ans: 3 years
131.According to Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the fine imposed on any employed person, shall not be recovered from him after the expiry of ___________ days from the day on which it was imposed.
Ams: 90 days
132.Which Article consists the following three components?
Ans: Article 20(3)
133.What shall be the proportion of women amongst the members appointed in the Advisory Committee formed under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
Ans: One-Half
134.‘‘Payment of wages less than the minimum wage on the ground of less performance or output is illegal’’ is decided in which case?
Ans: Bandhu Mukti Morcha Vs Union of India
135.Consider the following statements about the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 and Choose the odd one
Ans: It shall apply to employees employed by RBI
136.The Equal Remuneration Act defines ‘Remuneration’ under ––––––.?
Ans: Section 2(g)